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Exercises before final exam (first part) Caio Machado Instituto de Econoḿıa Pontificia Universidad Católica de Chile Macroeconomia II, 2017 Exercise 1 a. Using the definition of the real exchange rate and some approximations show that (the notation is standard) εt −εt−1 εt−1 = Et −Et−1Et−1 +πt −π∗t In words, the percentage real appreciation equals the percentage nominal appreciation plus the difference between domestic and foreign inflation. The definition of the real exchange rate says that: εt = EtPt P∗t Taking logs logεt = logEt + logPt − logP∗t (1) Writing the same expression above for t + 1: logεt−1 = logEt−1 + logPt−1− logP∗t−1 (2) Subtracting (2) from (1) logεt− logεt−1 = (logEt − logEt−1)+(logPt − logPt−1)− ( logP∗t − logP∗t−1 ) Since logX − logY ≈ (X −Y )/Y , we get to the desired expression. b. If domestic inflation is higher than foreign inflation, and the domestic country has a fixed exchange rate, what happens to the real exchange rate over time? Assume that the Marshall-Lerner condition holds. What happens to the trade balance over time? Explain in words. If the domestic country has a fixed exchange rate, the equation shown in the previous item becomes: εt −εt−1 εt−1 = πt −π∗t Thus, if domestic inflation is higher than foreign inflation, the real exchange rate increases over time. If the Marshall-Lerner condition holds, a real appreciation induces a worsening of the trade balance (because the Marshall-Lerner conditions assumes a negative and stronger effect on imports than on exports). c. Suppose the real exchange rate is currently at the level required for net exports (or the current account) to equal zero. In this case, if domestic inflation is higher than foreign inflation, what must happen over time to maintain a trade balance of zero? There are many different things that could happen. In particualr, we could have nominal depreciation over time, that is: Et −Et−1 Et−1 =−(πt −π∗t ) This would guarantee a constant real exchange rate, mantaining the zero trade balance (everything else constant, of course). Exercise 2 [Policy coordination and the world economy.] Consider an open economy in which the real exchange rate is fixed and equal to one. Consumption, investment, government spending, and taxes are given by C = 10 + 0.8(Y −T ), I = 10, G = 10, and T = 10. Imports and exports are given by IM = 0.3Y and X = 0.3Y ∗, where Y ∗ denotes foreign output. a. Solve for equilibrium output in the domestic economy, given Y ∗. What is the multiplier in this economy? If we were to close the economy—so exports and imports were identically equal to zero—what would the multiplier be? Why would the multiplier be different in a closed economy? To clearly see the multiplier, it is useful to define the Autonomous Domestic Demand as ADD = 10−0.8T + I + G = 22 (it is the sum of the components of domestic demand that do not depend on Y). Equilibrium output will be given by Y = ADD + 0.8Y + 0.3Y ∗−0.3Y (1−0.8 + 0.3)Y = ADD + 0.3Y ∗ Y = 2[ADD + 0.3Y ∗] = 2[22 + 0.3Y ∗] One can see that the multiplier in this economy is 2. If we close the economy, the equilibrium would be Y = ADD + 0.8Y (1−0.8)Y = ADD Y = 5×ADD = 110 Thus, the multiplier in this economy is 5, much larger than the multiplier in the open economy. The reason for that is that in the open economy, part of the increase in demand that comes from higher income does not become demand for domestic goods, but instead demand for foreign goods. b. Assume that the foreign economy is characterized by the same equations as the domestic economy (with asterisks reversed). Use the two sets of equations to solve for the equilibrium output of each country. [Hint: Use the equations for the foreign economy to solve for Y ∗ as a function of Y and substitute this solution for Y ∗ in part (a).] What is the multiplier for each country now? Why is it different from the open economy multiplier in part (a)? Using our previous equation, the equilibrium output in the foreign country is Y ∗ = 2[ADD∗+ 0.3Y ] where ADD∗ = ADD = 22 here too. Plugging the equation for equilibrium output in the domestic country Y = 2[ADD + 0.3Y ∗] we have Y ∗ = 2{ADD∗+ 0.3[2(ADD + 0.3Y ∗)]} Y ∗ = 3.125[ADD∗+ 0.6ADD] = 110 Similarly, we can find that Y = 3.125[ADD + 0.6ADD∗] = 110 The multiplier now is 3.125, for both countries. This is higher than in part A because now an increase in domestic demand leads also to an increase in foreign demand (exports), which causes a further increase in output, which causes a further increase in both domestic and foreign demand and so on. c. Assume that the domestic government, G , has a target level of output of 125. Assuming that the foreign government does not change G∗, what is the increase in G necessary to achieve the target output in the domestic economy? Solve for net exports and the budget deficit in each country. Since domestic output is given by Y = 3.125[ADD + 0.6ADD∗]. To achieve Y = 125 we need to solve 3.125[ADD + 0.6ADD∗] = 125 =⇒ ADD = 40−0.6ADD∗ = 26.8 Thus, the Autonomous Domestic Demand needs to go from 22 to 26.8, and thus the government needs to increase expenditures in 4.8 units. The output in the foreign country will be given by Y ∗ = 3.125[ADD∗+ 0.6ADD] = 3.125[22 + 0.6×26.8] = 119 Which implies net exports of NX = 0.3×119−0.3×125 =−1.8 in the domestic country and NX ∗ = 0.3×125−0.3×119 = 1.8 in the foreign country. The budget deficit is 0 in the foreign country and -4.8 in the domestic country. d. Suppose each government has a target level of output of 125 and that each government increases government spending by the same amount. What is the common increase in G and G∗ necessary to achieve the target output in both countries? Solve for net exports and the budget deficit in each country. To solve for the necessary increase in government expenditures, we assume that both countries are going to implement the same increase. Thus, ADD and ADD∗ will remain equal to each other. We can thus solve: 3.125[ADD∗+ 0.6ADD] = 3.125[1.6ADD] = 125 Which implies ADD = 25 Thus, both countries need to increase their government expenditures in 3 units. Net exports in both countries will be equal to zero, that is NX = 0.3×125−0.3×125 = NX ∗. The budget deficit is -3 in both countries. e. Why is fiscal coordination, such as the common increase in G and G∗ in part (d), difficult to achieve in practice? It is difficult because an increase in G in the domestic country reduces the incentives of the foreign country to increase G∗, since it already increases output a bit in the foreign country. For instance, suppose the foreign country knows the domestic economy will achieve a output of 125 no matter what. He can cooperate as in item (d) and also increase G∗, in which case both end up with a zero trade balance, a output of 125 and budget deficit. But he may prefer the situation of item (c): only one country do a fiscal expansion, and the other end up with a slightly smaller output. On the other hand, the country that did not the fiscal expansion will have no budget deficit and a trade surplus. Exercise 3 [Flexible exchange rates and foreign macroeconomic events.] Consider an open economy with flexible exchange rates. Let UIP stand for the uncovered interest parity condition. a. In an IS-LM–UIP diagram, show the effect of an increase in foreign output, Y ∗, on domestic output (Y ) and the exchange rate (E ), when the domestic central bank leaves the policy interest rate unchanged. Explain in words. Remember we can write the IS relation as: IS relation: Y = C(Y −T ) + I(Y , i) + G + NX Y ,Y ∗, 1 + i1 + i∗E e︸ ︷︷ ︸ E When Y ∗ increase, net exports increase, since exports increase. This shifts the IS curve. i i Y E IS ′IS UIP A A′ ∆X > 0 LM b. In an IS-LM–UIP diagram, show the effect of an increase in the foreign interest rate, i∗, on domestic output (Y ) and the exchange rate (E ), when the domestic central bank leaves the policy interestrate unchanged. Explain in words. The increase in the foreign exchange rate will shift down the UIP curve, reducing E . This reduction in E (assuming the Marshall-Lerner condition holds), induces a real depreciation, increasing NX and shifting IS to the right. If we consider that the higher i∗ decreased foreign output, then we would also have a force shifting the IS to the left (it is not clear which effect would dominate). Thus, in the graph below I assume that only i∗ increased (think of the foreign government using fiscal policy to offset the impact on output). i i Y E IS ′IS UIP A A′ ∆E < 0 UIP ′ A′ ALM Exercise 4 [Flexible exchange rates and the responses to changes in foreign macroeconomic policy.] Suppose there is an expansionary fiscal policy in the foreign country that increases Y ∗ and i∗ at the same time. a. In an IS-LM–UIP diagram, show the effect of the increase in foreign output, Y ∗, and the increase in the foreign interest rate, i∗, on domestic output (Y ) and the exchange rate (E ), when the domestic central bank leaves the policy interest rate unchanged. Explain in words. When the foreign interest rate increases, UIP shifts to the left, which reduces the nominal exchange rate (and consequently the real exchange rate). This increases net exports (assuming Marshall-Lerner), shifting the IS to the left. The increase in Y ∗ further shifts the IS to the left, by increasing exports. i i Y E IS ′IS UIP A A′ ∆NX > 0 UIP ′ A′ ALM b. In an IS-LM–UIP diagram, show the effect of the increase in foreign output, Y ∗, and the increase in the foreign interest rate, i∗, on domestic output (Y ) and the exchange rate (E ), when the domestic central bank matches the increase in the foreign interest rate with an equal increase in the domestic interest rate. Explain in words. Remember that the UIP relation is E = 1 + i1 + i∗E e Thus, if the central bank increases i in the same proportion as the foreign central bank, the equilibrium E will be the same (even the increase is the same only in absolute terms, the linear approximation of UIP tells us it should be almost the same). The IS curve will still shift to the right because the increase in Y ∗. Depending on the size of the shift, the new output level can be higher or lower. The graph below shows the case in which it is higher. i i Y E IS ′IS UIP A B ∆Y ∗ > 0 UIP ′ B ALM LM ′A ′ A′ c. In an IS-LM–UIP diagram, show the required domestic monetary policy following the increase in foreign output, Y ∗, and the increase in the foreign interest rate, i∗, if the goal of domestic monetary policy is to leave domestic output (Y ) unchanged. Explain in words. When might such a policy be necessary? The graph below shows the increase in domestic interest rates needed (LM’) after the IS shifts. Regarding the equilibrium exchange rate in A’ that could be higher, lower or even equal than the exchange rate at A, depending on the size of the shift in IS and UIP. i i Y E IS ′IS UIP A UIP ′ ALM LM ′A ′ A′ Exercise 5 (much more difficult) [This looks similar to the one I did in class, but look carefully]. Time starts at date 0. The loss function of the central bank at date t is given by Lt = ut +γπ2t and the Philips curve is as usual: ut = un−η (πt −πet ). At each date τ , the central bank minimizes the discounted sum of Lt : ∞∑ t=τ βt−τ Lt We know that under discretion in an one period model, the central bank would choose π = πd ≡ η2γ , and we also know that the optimal inflation is zero [show that again to practice!]. Now suppose people forms their expectations according to: πet = { 0 if πτ = 0,∀τ < t or πτ 6= 0 for τ ∈ {t−k, ..., t−1} η 2γ otherwise In other words, as long as the central bank keeps choosing zero inflation, people believe it will do that in the future. If he chooses some different inflation at some date, people believe he will choose the inflation consistent with a static equilibrium under discretion, πe = η2γ , for k periods, where k ≥ 1, and then they will believe he will choose zero again. Suppose the central bank is at a date τ such that it has chosen zero inflation in all previous periods. Is it optimal for the central bank to choose zero inflation in all periods in the future? Suppose that the central bank does not deviate from the strategy. His payoff will then be V Cooperate = ∞∑ t=τ βt−τ un = un 1−β If he deviates, he will choose πτ to minimize Lτ . Plugging the Phillips curve into the loss function and using πeτ = 0 Lτ = un−ηπτ +γπ2τ The first order condition is −η+ 2γπτ = 0 =⇒ πτ = η 2γ Which yields a loss function of Lτ = un− η 2 2γ + η2 4γ = un− η2 4γ . For the next k periods then, he will choose the discretion inflation πτ = η2γ , but people will choose πe = η2γ , yielding a loss un + η2 4γ . After date τ + k, he gets his loss of cooperation again. Thus, the payoff of this deviation is V Deviate = ( un− η2 4γ ) + τ+k∑ t=τ+1 βt−τ ( un + η2 4γ ) +βk+1V Cooperate Note we can rewrite τ+k∑ t=τ+1 βt−τ ( un + η2 4γ ) =β ( un + η2 4γ ) +β2 ( un + η2 4γ ) +· · ·+βk ( un + η2 4γ ) = β1−β ( un + η2 4γ ) − β k+1 1−β ( un + η2 4γ ) = β−β k+1 1−β ( un + η2 4γ ) Thus, the payoff of deviating for k periods V Deviate = ( un− η2 4γ ) + β−β k+1 1−β ( un + η2 4γ ) +βk+1 V Cooperate︷ ︸︸ ︷ un 1−β = ( un− η2 4γ ) + un β 1−β + β−βk+1 1−β η2 4γ = un 1−β − η2 4γ + β−βk+1 1−β η2 4γ Remark: of course, we are considering the best deviation he can do (if he deviates for k + 1 periods). If it is not optimal to deviate k + 1 periods, it will not be optimal to deviate for longer periods. (If it is not optimal to deviate at date τ , it is not optimal to deviate at {τ + k, τ + k + 1, ...} since he will face the exact same problem). The deviation is not profitable when V Deviate > V Cooperate un 1−β − η2 4γ + β−βk+1 1−β η2 4γ > un 1−β − η 2 4γ + β−βk+1 1−β η2 4γ > 0 2β−βk+1 > 1 Thus, if the condition above is satisfied, there is an equilibrium with cooperation. Two remarks: • Note that as k → 0 this conditions becomes 2β > 1, which is equivalent to β > 1/2 (the same condition we had a few classes ago in a similar exercise). • As k becomes larger, this condition is more easily satisfied. Intuitively, if agents punish the central bank for a lot of periods, it is easier to have cooperation.
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